Occam’s Razor

Can we just talk about what Occam’s Razor actually means? I see so many people on here interpreting it as “what I personally think is most simple” or even “what I think is most likely.” Instead of simply “the answer with the least amount of variables is more likely to be true than one with more variables.”

It should have nothing to do with strangeness or weirdness or cultural expectations. It also doesn’t mean “what’s most ordinary or normal is most likely.”

And even given all that, Occam’s Razor was designed to ONLY be used when two options have been proven already to an equal degree with available evidence. It’s an ending point, not a starting point, it was never meant to be authoritative, just an extra tool to inform judgement as a part of many already existing logical tools.

Also, loads of philosophers like Immanuel Kant, Karl Menger and Gottfried Leibnitz (Leibniz?) disagree fundamentally with Occam’s philosophy anyway.

It’s certainly not definitive, it’s not a trump card by any means, and when I see it without a thorough explanation of why it’s being used and applied, I have to heavily question whatever is being put forward using it.

Thoughts?